OK...........had a case today that has still got me wondering something. We had a 50 y/o male with sudden onset CP/MI taken to cath lab and then taken to CVOR with a 100% occulsion in the LAD. ACB was performed x 1 and from report was a routine ACB. The patient arrives to CVICU where we take over. Our standard protocol for post op ACB's are among other things, NTG at 5-7 mcg's vein graft patency. The patient arrives on 30 mcg of NTG and we soon decreased it to 6.6 mcg's. Shortly after, a newer CRNA in our CVOR starts ripping into the girl that had the patient about how the patient had and MI and that she doesnt care what the physician orders are, that the NTG should remain at 30 mcg. My quesiton is, the patient had ONE diagnosed occlusion of the LAD. No other vessels were found to be involved as the cause of Ischemia/Infarction. The LAD was bypassed and the area of injury reperfussed. What is the logic behind freaking out over a vessel that has already been bypassed? Am I missing something? This was mentioned to her and she got mad and left.